Flight Operations Manual Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What are the main operational concerns during hot weather?
• If MIN fuel is not on board at the beginning of the takeoff roll, what action(s) must the crew take?
• Which data type is transmitted by ACARS between the aircraft and the company?
• When should a published Obstacle Departure Procedure be used?
• Which cockpit button should be used to notify the flight attendants when an emergency with possible evacuation?
• Which Jeppesen chart can be used to reference an airport designated as mountainous?
• What is the normal aircraft configuration for deicing/anti-icing?
• Maximum number of passengers on reposition flights when no Flight Attendant(s) are on board?
• What are examples of unexpected threats?
• What clearance is required from ATC before a company aircraft may cross any runway?
• Prior to departure, Maintenance will enter a ferry flight authorization into a discrepancy column. What is entered in the corrective action block?
• Flights may not be dispatched using ________ only approaches at both the destination and alternate airports
• What level of understanding must the flight crew have of the deicing and anti-icing process to ensure safety?
• Why is the callout 'V1' made by the PM just before reaching the actual indicated V1 speed?
• What is the First Officer's duty in an evacuation?
• Which exemption allows a High Minimums Captain to operate to the lowest applicable Category I instrument approach minimums?
• Is an FA passenger count required to be conducted?
• What does CA MEL indicate?
• All company flights not EOW equipped must remain within ______ NM of the nearest shore line at all times.
• What part of the aircraft must deicing fluid be applied?
• Is a company aircraft permitted to takeoff or land when a microburst alert is issued?
• What frequency must be monitored on the #2 COM radio while enroute?
• Is the PF permitted to manipulate the Flight Guidance Panel (FGP) and/or FMS MCDU while the aircraft is hand-flown?
• What is the purpose of a repositioning flight?
• Why must a positive transfer of controls be used by both pilots?
• What is the purpose of the Quick Reference Handbook?
• Do the PED prohibition requirements apply to jumpseaters?
• Missing Atlas Containers require a logbook entry?
• Which distance limit applies to EOW routes above 35N latitude from the nearest shoreline?
• Which organization’s charts are referenced to identify cold temp restrictions on airports?
• Which OpSpec is used to derive alternate weather minimums?
• Which document should be immediately referenced for specific procedures for an encounter with volcanic ash?
• Which deferral is typically documented on the CDL?
• During an emergency situation, what task(s) may the PF perform to keep the airplane in a safe flight configuration?
• During an RNAV / RNP RF leg, what is the maximum allowed airspeed?
• What software is used by the company to compute required fuel quantities for domestic, flag and supplemental operations using forecast conditions?
• Which two documents are retained by the station?
• What does the FR annotation after an MEL system number indicate?
• What are EOW approved aircraft specially equipped with?
• Which of the following statements about the verification system for occupying the flight deck jumpseat is correct?
• Frost, snow, or ice that is adhering to any part of the airplane structure has what effect on takeoff?
• What equipment must be donned by a flight crewmember when fighting a fire?
• During descent, at what altitude is the ‘Flight Attendants, please prepare cabin for arrival’ announcement made?
• During descent, the cabin crew announcement ‘please prepare cabin for arrival’ is made at what altitude?
• The company may not schedule, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment or continue an assigned FDP if the total flight time will exceed the limits of Table A, unless __________ after takeoff.
• If ice accumulation on the flaps is suspected after landing, do not retract the flaps past position ___.
• What article of clothing are pilots required to wear during an exterior preflight inspection?
• The Company is authorized to conduct scheduled passenger operations between the regular airports listed in which Ops Specs?
• If the captain is incapacitated, who assumes command of the aircraft?
• What action should be taken when ozone levels are detected in the cabin?
• Short-call reserve availability period may not exceed ______ hours.
• Which pilot accomplishes the Takeoff Briefing?
• Which situation would SWAP explicitly discourage?
• On flights exceeding two hours, approximately how frequently shall the score card be updated?
• Which statement best describes how flight crewmembers ensure mutual understanding of clearances?
• Where would you find the current information on approved EFB software versions?
• Under what circumstance is the use of deicing fluid to clear contaminants from the engine permitted?
• When and how must a memory item be accomplished by the PM?
• Is flying professionally for compensation for any operation other than Republic without prior approval permitted?
• Can a pilot who fails to satisfactorily complete any training or checking event be utilized in revenue operations?
• What are the limitations associated with the use of the GRG?
• Can the after-landing flow be performed while still on the runway?
• What is the only condition when frost is permitted on the wings?
• What is the lowest altitude the ALT selector may be set during a visual approach?
• Exemption 17347 applies when forecasts indicate potential non-compliance for which locations?
• In the terminal area, which altitude is defined by the operator as the safe altitude?
• Can a flight crewmember operate temporarily without the required certificates?
• During autopilot engagement, which pilot handles the Flight Guidance Panel (FGP) and MCDU?
• Which lights shall always remain on?
• UN number assigned to Dry Ice?
• What three Jeppesen charts must be referenced to identify a cold temp restricted airport?
• Which three parties must be notified immediately following a rejected takeoff?
• When is airborne weather radar required for dispatch?
• Which statement describes marginal weather for the destination?
• Can an RNAV-only approach be used for determining a takeoff alternate?
• If both flight attendants are incapacitated, which action must the flight crew take?
• Which flap setting represents the normal configuration for deicing/anti-icing operations?
• How long must at least one copy of the dispatch release along with any amendments be retained?
• What contact information is provided for the ASAP Safety Hotline?
• If weather at both the destination and the alternate is marginal, what dispatch requirement becomes necessary?
• CRO's responsibility?
• In an emergency requiring an immediate decision or action, what action is the captain permitted to take?
• Which fuel category accounts for any additional fuel requested?
• When must crewmembers be at their duty station with seatbelt and shoulder harness fastened?
• If an NTSB reportable event has occurred, who should the Captain contact to convey a clear picture of the circumstances and recommend the best course of action?
• SWAP uses canned routes called what to route aircraft around hazardous weather?
• Can the FMS be used for navigation to substitute an inoperative ground-based navaid that is not part of a final approach segment?
• What type of altimeter must be used when determining decision height for an ILS CAT III approach?
• If an RVR report is available, is it required to be used for all takeoff operations on that runway?
• What must the flight crew ensure prior to accepting a Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) clearance?
• When is a First Officer considered Low Time?
• If a new dispatch release number is issued after crew has signed, which action must be taken?
• When using the FMS with a NAVAID or LOC-based course providing final approach lateral guidance, what data must be monitored?
• Which document contains the corrective action block that may require an INFO ONLY entry?
• Which item is NOT listed as an AMENDED dispatch release condition?
• When is a Safety vest required to be worn?
• During fueling with passengers onboard, what is the minimum crew requirement for evacuation support?
• Who manipulates the landing gear and flap controls?
• When establishing and communicating a plan, who should be informed?
• Which manual shall the flight crew reference to review each NEF deferral prior to every flight?
• Which category is used to account for FAR required reserves on the release?
• Operational control over all flight operations is the responsibility of which role?
• Who shall be advised of the plan of action when a checklist contains the phrase "Establish and Communicate a Plan"?
• What is the minimum depth of standing water or slush that contributes to runway contamination?
• Which document serves as the primary reference for non-normals that do not contain an immediate action item or memory item?
• Which pilot calls for all non-normal checklists?
• When exercising exemption 17347, the METAR and TAF at the first alternate airport can be ½ of the lowest required _________ and _________ for the OpSpec C055 alternate weather minimums.
• Which of the following is true about the 8 hour waiting period after an accident?
• Which option represents a standard step for opening the passenger door?
• Where is the pre-takeoff contamination check performed?
• Which program provides confidential reporting of safety concerns and issues, including deviations from company policies and procedures?
• When is the fueling operation required to be supervised by the flight crew?
• A Category C MEL expires after how many consecutive calendar days?
• What GO / NO GO decision must be made when a malfunction occurs at or after V1?
• In flight with an inoperative ACARS, when should Company calls not be made?
• What fuel quantity remaining shall "Fuel Emergency" be declared with ATC?
• If the TDZ RVR is not available, which RVR can be substituted?
• Do ATC-issued radar vectors supersede the published missed-approach procedure?
• After how many verbal communications with no response is a crewmember considered incapacitated?
• Which communications with Dispatch are recorded by the company and retained for 30 days?
• Which location is used to view the wing to check for contamination when ground view is insufficient?
• Which document acts as company-issued identification for jumpseat access?
• Which document is explicitly required to be on the aircraft for radio compliance?
• Which organization is designated to issue flight releases for supplemental flights?
• What option must be selected when using the WSI Pilotbrief Optima application to obtain a weather briefing in place of the flight release weather?
• Which item is NOT required on the aircraft, among common operational documents?
• If TDZ RVR is unavailable, which RVR provides substitution for planning?
• Which AMENDED condition relates to fuel and weight: Actual TOW exceeds Planned TOW by more than 4000 lbs?
• Which pilot sends the ACARS pilot landing request response?
• When is the application of maximum reverse thrust to a full stop permissible?
• Who assumes responsibility for delaying a flight for catering, late or connecting passengers?
• Which statement best describes the Departure Review participation?
• What does FOD stand for in flight planning?
• When is the captain in command of the aircraft and crew and responsible for the safety of the aircraft?
• Terrain display is mandated on at least one MFD when operating below which altitude?
• Can an aircraft be left unattended with the APU running?
• Cold temperature corrections require ATC notification unless corrections are made on which segment?
• What is the MEL category and repair interval for NEF items?
• When holding enroute, what is the reason the PIC should calculate their own minimum fuel?
• Which conditions are considered a contaminated runway?
• What does D-ATIS stand for in ACARS communications?
• What conditions require an emergency declaration?
• Who is responsible for completing all non-normal checklists while on the ground?
• Who has the responsibility for monitoring the destination weather suitability while enroute?
• When must a pilot keep an appropriate medical certificate and pilot certificate in their possession or readily accessible?
• During taxi operations, what is the required number of personnel on the flight deck?
• During an emergency, is ATC clearance required prior to taking action?
• Which entity bears responsibility for delaying a flight to accommodate catering or late/connecting passengers?
• When the first officer lands, what speed will the captain typically assume control of the aircraft?
• The touchdown zone is defined as the first one third of the available landing distance, not exceeding how many feet?
• Which of the following best justifies turning ON the seatbelt sign?
• Is the day of the inspection counted as part of the 2-day check interval and the 14-day airworthiness release interval?
• To defer a MEL item, which party must be contacted?
• Is an aircraft limitation exceedance required to be entered as a discrepancy in the AFML?
• An RNAV SID or STAR must be retrievable by which item from the FMS database?
• Which time reference is used to determine calendar day time limits?
• In the AQP distance learning schedule, the 'Middle month' is the central month of the quarter. True or False?
• Which of the following is included as a takeoff briefing item?
• For LAHSO operations, what is the specified tailwind limit?
• During taxi delays, approximately how many minutes between customer delay updates are provided?
• When exercising exemption 17347, a ______ alternate must be listed on the dispatch release.
• When any EICAS Warning or Caution occurs, what shall the PF announce?
• If conditions change and the flight cannot be conducted in accordance with the dispatch release what action must be taken?
• In engine-out procedures, what defines the 'nearest suitable airport'?
• What does the acronym GRG stand for?
• What is the correct response to a challenge when a component is not installed on the aircraft?
• During pushback, if a tow bar shear pin breaks, which action is appropriate?
• Which manual contains specific Rejected Takeoff procedures?
• Are prisoners in the custody of law enforcement personnel accepted for travel?
• Which of the following is considered a required item to be carried in the flight kit?
• At what fuel quantity remaining shall minimum fuel be declared with ATC?
• The PIC is responsible to record actual flight time and actual fuel burn on the release score card on all flights that exceed how many hours?
• What is the acronym used by flight attendants to collect medical information?
• During a checklist, which role should verify the switch position or action?
• Which document block is used to record the completion of the two-day check?
• When operating on an EOW route with published entry and exit points , deviations are only permitted due to__________
• What is Republic Airways' definition of icing conditions?
• Which statement about personal electronic devices is true?
• Which manual should be consulted to learn how to send a delay report via ACARS?
• Which three documents are required to be on the aircraft?
• When is single engine taxi not authorized?
• Can the aircraft be fueled during an electrical storm?
• What are the actions of the PF and PM when accomplishing a memory item?
• What is the maximum number of company personnel permitted to fly on reposition flights without flight attendants?
• All crewmembers must be on board the aircraft how many minutes prior to departure?
• Before engine start, a flight crewmember must verify which of the following about the N1 fan?
• The aircraft may not take off or land when moderate or heavy precipitation in the form of which substances is falling at the airport?
• In a simultaneous parallel approach, what instruction is issued if an aircraft penetrates NTZ?
• Is an aircraft required to return to the gate if the tow bar shear pin breaks during pushback?
• How is a pre-takeoff check performed?
• Time spent in deadhead transportation is considered as which type of duty?
• Catering snacks are unavailable, what is the maximum time an aircraft may experience an extended delay before returning to a gate?
• A Category D MEL expires after how many consecutive calendar days?
• Which action is required to verify takeoff safety in heavy snow conditions?
• Who is responsible for providing the Captain with all available weather reports and forecasts for each route to be flown and each airport to be used?
• OpSpec C055 relates to which aspect of weather minimums?
• What is the lowest authorized RNP to conduct an RNP AR approach?
• LAHSO prerequisites include a Dry Runway. Which option correctly reflects this?
• With a single navigational facility, how is landing visibility adjusted when determining alternate minimums?
• What information must be available to use Autobrakes?
• Which form of moisture is associated with icing conditions?
• What are examples of expected threats?
• What are the Challenger's responsibilities when reading a checklist?
• In MEL provisions, what does the (M) symbol indicate?
• What action should the crew take at the first sign of an ozone encounter?
• Using C055, how are the alternate minimums determined when dispatching to an alternate airport with two suitable runways with operational navigation facilities?
• Which flight crewmembers must have a FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit in their possession?
• With two suitable runways and navigation facilities, how is the MDA/DH adjusted?
• During preflight inspection, the wing's upper surface cannot be assessed from the ground for frozen contaminants. Where should the wing be viewed to check for contamination?
• Which item in the release briefing indicates the chosen alternate airports?
• LAHSO prerequisites include no low time First Officers. Which option correctly reflects this requirement?
• What table must be referenced to determine Type IV holdover time when Hail , Small Hail , Ice Pellets , Snow Grains and Snow Pellets?
• How should automation be used during a non-normal situation?
• What does SOC prepare to help assist the flight crew with information required for specific charter operations?
• Airborne weather radar is required for dispatch under which conditions?
• Which of the following is attached to the release?
• Can a flight crewmember temporarily operate without the required certificates in their personal possession?
• How many minutes delayed is a tarmac delay considered excessive?
• The photoluminescent strips must be charged prior to each flight by turning the ceiling and entrance cabin lighting to bright for at least _______ minutes.
• Blood donation must not occur within how many hours prior to a flight?
• No Pilot may takeoff from an airp that is not listed in the OpSp unless what three conditions are met?
• What is an open discrepancy?
• For high altitude operations above the transition level, which altimeter setting is used?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three documents required for jumpseat access?
• Who is responsible to maintain operational control over all flight operations?
• In a checklist scenario, who is responsible for ensuring the correct response is verbalized?
• In the context of the AQP deadline schedule, the term 'Middle' month refers to which position within the quarter?
• What does OCF stand for in the context of flight testing?
• When are low visibility taxi charts (SMGCS) used?
• A High Minimums First Officer may not perform a takeoff or landing under which conditions?
• A flight to an airport with a scheduled curfew with an expected ETA after the scheduled curfew ends must have a __________ listed on the dispatch release.
• Which document is required to ferry an unairworthy aircraft to a maintenance facility?
• What is the maximum speed that a takeoff can be rejected for any reason?
• What assumption is the fuel on destination (FOD) estimate listed on the computer flight plan based upon?
• Which ACARS message type is listed as an example of an ACARS communication between aircraft and company?
• Which role is primarily responsible for determining passenger headcount and auto closeout?
• Who is responsible to test the lavatory smoke detector as part of the preflight check?
• Which table would you reference to determine Type IV holdover time when precipitation includes hail and snow pellets?
• Who is responsible to ensure the aircraft operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the MEL?
• Which turbulence intensity category requires a maintenance write-up?
• During which phases must crewmembers be at their duty station with seatbelts fastened?
• In flight, which resource should be consulted for maintenance irregularities?
• Who may request RNAV Visual Flight Procedures authorization?
• When must the Red Beacon be ON?
• What information is listed on the Flight Log Deferred Index?
• To prevent short circuit, how must the backup battery be stored when not in use?
• The Flight Crew notification Flight Attendants, prepare the cabin for arrival alerts Flight Attendants to initiate what series of events?
• Which precipitation condition would disallow takeoff or landing?
• What actions must be taken by the flight crew if a fault occurs without an associated EICAS message (e.g., frozen ACARS screen)?
• In an evacuation, who is responsible for exiting the aircraft last?
• Where must the pilot go to conduct a pre-takeoff contamination check?
• How is a Prolonged Tarmac Delay different from a gate delay?
• When is a response to the ACARS automated delay reminder required?
• Who is responsible for verifying the passport validity or CASS participation of a jumpseat occupant?
• Which two parties are jointly responsible for the preflight planning , delay , and dispatch release of a flight?
• All crewmembers will report for duty no later than how many minutes prior to scheduled departure?
• Which MEL category expires after 120 consecutive days?
• When is each pilot required to check the EFB mount and verify secure attachment?
• Who is responsible for being informed about clerical errors discovered after acceptance?
• Are normal checklists required after a non-normal checklist has been accomplished?
• When must any accumulation of frost, snow, or ice be removed from the upper wing surface?
• What manual contains aircraft-specific deicing/anti-icing procedures?
• Which frequency is designated for emergency monitoring enroute?
• UN number associated with Biological Substance Category B?
• After a rejected takeoff, if there is potential for evacuation, where should the aircraft stop?
• Which of the following is NOT a communication system used to communicate between the aircraft and SOC?
• Live animals are transported in which aircraft cargo compartments?
• What actions must be taken by the flight crew if a fault is detected by an aircraft EICAS message?
• Flights operating on EOW routes require minimum cruise altitude of?
• After a rejected takeoff, when should the aircraft stop on the runway?
• Are hazmat shipments or any quantity of dry ice permitted on the flight deck?
• Which statement best describes MST?
• Which category is used to account for fuel that is required by FAR reserves?
• Thunderstorm tops must be avoided by at least 2000 feet when the wind speed at the cloud top is 20 knots. Which option reflects this requirement?
• How does the Flight Deck notify the Flight Attendants that takeoff is imminent?
• Who may extend the maximum FDP permitted in Table B when unforeseen operational circumstances arise prior to takeoff?
• What should all crewmembers do when plans are not clear?
• A pilot may not serve as a crewmember unless they have performed at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding how many days?
• Is a release amendment required when the fuel onboard is more than RAMP - 300 lbs and dispatch advises additional fuel is NOT required?
• Who is responsible to ensure the airplane is deiced/anti-iced in accordance with company procedures?
• In flight, when may a circuit breaker be pulled or reset?
• How are cabin maintenance irregularities reported to the Captain?
• During an EDCT, should boarding and pre-flight checks be delayed?
• If a crewmember is in doubt regarding a clearance, what is the correct action?
• Which option is included among the required aircraft documents?
• Per company policy, how often must a VOR check be accomplished?
• In the event the PF commands a gear selection, which steps should the PM perform?
• Which of the following would require a NEW dispatch release?
• What is the required lighting when crossing an active runway?
• Using the visibility conversion table, what SM corresponds to an RVR of 1600?
• If any items are missed during a checklist reading, what should the Responder do?
• When is terrain required to be displayed on at least one pilot's MFD?
• Deicing fluid may be used to clear contaminants from the engine under which circumstance?
• During hot weather operations, what combination of conditions can result in substantial aircraft performance penalties?
• Can a flight be dispatched if the calculated required stopping distance is not available?
• Crews with effective CRM skills are more likely to mitigate threats and reduce possible errors. True or False?
• Which statement regarding fueling with passengers onboard at off-gate locations is true about crew staffing?
• Which three documents must the Captain check prior to allowing access to the flight deck jumpseat?
• When does a calendar day time limit expire?
• Where on the airport does 'Nil' braking action prohibit aircraft operations?
• RCAM stands for which of the following?
• SMGCS usage threshold is triggered at which RVR?
• SOC stands for in the policy framework?
• Pilots are released from duty ________ minutes after completing the last scheduled/rescheduled leg of a trip pairing.
• When installed, are autobrakes required to be used upon landing?
• Takeoff is prohibited on any runway in which the contamination exceeds Level ___.
• Which TDZ visibility value is the minimum required for an ILS Category I approach?
• When holding enroute, why is the PIC expected to calculate their own minimum fuel?
• Which of the following best describes the class of airspace in which the company may operate when the control tower is not operational?
• What is an undesired aircraft state?
• Which item in the release briefing identifies the aircraft by a unique tail number?
• A Deferred Maintenance Item (DMI) is best described as:
• What three items must the captain ascertain status of prior to accepting an airplane?
• Holdover time is defined as what?
• How is ballast fuel included as part of the Hold fuel communicated to the flight crew?
• Ballast fuel included as part of Hold fuel is indicated to the crew how?
• Which statement about airspace and enroute operations is correct for the company?
• What is the primary purpose of the AFML in fault management?
• Which app is approved for aeronautical chart needs?
• Who has the responsibility of tracking actual flight times for legality purposes?
• What type of altimeter must be used when determining decision height for an ILS CAT I approach?
• Which flight attendants must be on board to assist in an evacuation when fueling with passengers on board?
• Which weight category is used as the basis for W&B calculations in the company's system?
• If an EFB fails on the ground, which option is recommended?
• Ballast fuel must be added to which fuel declarations with ATC?
• What conditions are used by the flight crew to calculate landing performance at the time of arrival?
• What is an immediate action item?
• What is the repair interval for a CDL?
• Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins when a Flight Crew Member is required to report for duty with the intention of conducting a flight, a series of flights, positioning, or ferry flights.
• Which item is included in the standard flight kit list?
• When must anti - ice fluid be applied?
• What prefix is assigned to U.S. RNAV routes within the high and low altitude structure?
• Enplaning or deplaning of passengers is not permitted at refueling airports unless an ______ exists.
• How is a release amendment validated by both the PIC and Dispatcher?
• Which action best describes the relationship between the Challenger and Responder in verbalizing responses during a checklist?
• In METAR/TAF reporting, the Main Body refers to which information?
• Which set lists the three conditions that will cause a flight attendant to initiate an evacuation when passengers are in imminent danger?
• Who is jointly responsible for calculating actual / scheduled flight time to comply with FAR 117?
• What fuel category is used to account for any additional fuel requested?
• Which of the following is the normal means of communication between the flight crew and the deice crew?
• When does a Flight Duty Period end?
• Is the day of discovery included as part of the MEL repair interval?
• Which item is a required takeoff briefing item?
• When a checklist states "Land at the Nearest Suitable Airport," which actions are expected?
• How is the dispatch release electronic signature communicated by the flight crew?
• How are memory items identified on the QRC?
• After all memory and/or immediate action items have been accomplished, what task will be assigned by the Captain?
• Which checklist contains immediate action items?
• For fuel efficiency, the APU should be shut down after the first engine start when the taxi time is anticipated to exceed ______ minutes?
• How many minutes prior to departure should the APU be started?
• Memory items on the QRC are identified by which formatting?
• Nav-Blue is a software tool used for which purpose?
• Which category is used to account for fuel to the most distant alternate airport?
• EOW routes operated above 35 degrees north latitude are limited to__________ from the nearest shoreline.
• Which item is NOT required on the aircraft, among common operational documents?
• Which form is used to communicate events not appropriate as ASAP or Incident reports?
• What level of automation is recommended when flying complex SIDS and STARS?
• Which dispatch release fuel category is used to account for fuel planned to be burned to the most distant alternate airport?
• Which action should the PF perform when a warning or caution occurs in relation to EICAS?
• Which signal indicates takeoff is imminent?
• Which scenario describes the proper pre-departure handling for an aircraft that was treated with anti-icing fluid overnight?
• What is Non-essential Equipment and Furnishings (NEF)?
• Headsets with a boom microphone are mandatory in flight below how many feet?
• What action resets the onboard delay clock to zero?
• What is a leading cause of altitude and course deviations in ASAP data?
• Which statement best describes the chain of command on the aircraft including flight attendants?
• Which pilot reviews the PDC and verifies it is properly loaded into the FMS?
• If dispatch is to an airport with a curfew and scheduled closure at ETA, is a destination alternate required?
• When must the chart data within Jeppesen FliteDeck Pro app be current?
• Which document is issued by the Federal Aviation Administration that must be checked before allowing a jumpseat occupant access?
• When does the TDP time stop?
• When exercising exemption 17347, Conditional phrases at the destination airport can be ______ of the lowest visibility for the instrument approach to be flown.
• For short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed ______ hours.
• What are the primary, secondary, and tertiary methods to perform W&B calculations?
• An EDCT is the time when the aircraft is supposed to ____________.
• Which of the following is true about frost on wings?
• The Company is authorized to conduct operations in Class _________ airspace or at airports where the control tower is not operational.
• Which manual contains a detailed list of OCF items?
• Which outcome is associated with effective CRM skills?
• Is it permissible to defer equipment not listed in MEL through the MEL process?
• What speed is the threshold for the ability to abort a takeoff during the takeoff roll?
• Which act or scenario would trigger the Safety Hotline to be used for disciplinary action according to the program rules?
• What is the purpose of the MEL?
• Which checklist has the highest level of urgency?
• The two parties that shall sign the dispatch release only if they both believe that the flight can be made safely are:
• When is it appropriate to pull or reset a circuit breaker?
• The company's approved W&B system is based on which weights for passengers, crew, checked baggage, and carry-on baggage?
• A pilot with a temporary airman certificate must notify the Manager of Pilot Training if they have not received their permanent certificate after how many days?
• Who is responsible for ensuring the completion and accuracy of cargo load information in the ACARS W&B system?
• What is the standard transponder code used to indicate an aviation emergency when ATC communication is not possible?
• Where are high power engine run ups prohibited?
• Summer weights are effective between which dates?
• Who is responsible for the entire pushback operation when pushing back from a gate?
• It is recommended to reduce the vertical speed of an aircraft to no more than ________ for the last __________ climbing or descending to an assigned altitude or flight level when another aircraft is approaching an adjacent altitude or flight level.
• When runway environment is not in sight at minimums on a monitored approach, which pilot performs the missed approach?
• Can a flight crew member declare a person dead?
• The notification Flight Attendants, prepare the cabin for arrival instructs Flight Attendants to initiate what action?
• Which engine will be shut down when at a parking gate?
• What is the lowest altitude a turn may be made on departure?
• Who is responsible to ensure the exterior/interior preflight inspections have been completed?
• What are the domestic fuel requirements per FAR?
• If an EFB fails in flight, what must be done as soon as practicable?
• In AFML, which entry type is used for ground reset events?
• If unforeseen operational circumstances arise prior to takeoff the PIC and the Company may extend the maximum FDP permitted in Table B up to ______ hours.
• All routes of flight must be within one hour flying time of an adequate airport in still air at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. This distance ______ NM.
• All flights are planned and flown under Class I Navigation. Is the Company authorized to conduct Class II Navigation?
• Is the flight log deferred index required for flight?
• What is the ASAP program?
• Boarding begins a minimum of how many minutes prior to departure?
• When landing on a contaminated runway, what flap setting should be used?
• Following an accident / incident, what is the focus of concern of all activities directed by the Captain?
• If fueling personnel are not trained on aircraft-specific procedures, who is responsible to assist the fueling personnel during the fueling process?
• Between 80 knots and V1, what are the three recommended reasons to reject a takeoff?
• In deicing operations, the normal aircraft configuration should be prepared with which flap setting?
• Which term describes a planned alternate used if the primary destination is unavailable?
• Under which condition may the FDP be extended beyond the standard limit?
• EOW routes operated below 35 degrees north latitude including the Gulf of Mexico / Caribbean are limited to ______ NM from the nearest shoreline.
• When loading an RNAV SID or STAR in the FMS, which item must be verified by both pilots?
• Flight crews must ensure that the Table A limit will not be exceeded prior to which event of each flight?
• Which three elements are attached to the release?
• An aircraft may take off in heavy snow provided the which flow chart is followed?
• Within how many hours must an incident report be filed after an electrical interference event?
• FAA designated Special Airports due to which combination of factors?
• Is the PIC responsible for a clerical error in the AFML made by the previous crew or maintenance personnel?
• CAT II operations are not authorized if the captain is on high-minimums or if the First Officer has less than how many hours in type?
• Can a crewmember wear clothing that would identify them as flight crew while in a bar?
• Which category is used to account for fuel that will be burned and includes a pad for missed approach climb?
• What items are included on the Configuration Deviation List (CDL)?
• Which statement about exterior post-flight inspections is true?
• When is an exterior post-flight inspection required?
• Which pages contain important operational and safety-related information for a particular airport in the Jeppesen Airway Manual?
• For departing flights, what event ends an excessive tarmac delay?
• Who must provide authorization to continue or originate any flight when a crewmember has been involved in an airplane accident or event requiring NTSB notification?
• How many minutes prior to scheduled departure time may a flight depart without approval from dispatch?
• Where are the two QRHs stored on the flight deck?
• When electrical interference is suspected or confirmed by the flight crew, which actions are required?
• Which pilot accomplishes all non-normal checklists while on the ground?
• Which item would require an AMENDED dispatch release due to MEL/CDL/NEF changes?
• When loading an RNAV SID or STAR in the FMS, what must be verified by both pilots?
• Can the aircraft be fueled with engines operating?
• When exercising exemption 17347, the main body of the METAR or TAF must be at or ______ the landing minimums at the ETA.
• Which altimeter is specifically required to determine decision height for ILS CAT III approaches?
• Can ILS CAT II approach minimums be used when determining a takeoff alternate?
• Which manual contains emergency / non-normal procedures based on annunciated EICAS system conditions and non-annunciated conditions?
• Which item is NOT part of the four items reviewed by the PIC when accepting an aircraft?
• If ramp headsets are inoperative or unavailable, what alternate means of communication may be used during pushback?
• Which document is a part of the onboard documents to destination along with Release and Flight Plan?
• Which of the following combinations accurately lists the two documents retained by the station?
• Which of the following is the correct TDZ visibility for ILS Category II?
• Which statement describes ACARS use during sterile cockpit?
• When does a Category B MEL expire?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a scheduled maintenance interval?
• Which statement is NOT one of the ten items briefed by Captain and verified by First Officer during a release briefing?
• The requirement of three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days applies to which role?
• If a galley cart is missing, who is responsible to replace it?
• Holdover time in anti-icing operations refers to which of the following?
• Who must be notified if RVSM capability is lost due to equipment failure while enroute?
• Who is responsible to determine the W & B?
• For the second alternate under exemption 17347, the METAR and TAF must indicate weather will be at or above which two minimums?
• In a flight deck fire, what are the two primary duties divided between crew members?
• What are the Responder's responsibilities when a checklist is being read?
• Which option describes a disallowed practice during fueling operations with passengers onboard?
• What are the actions of the PF and PM when accomplishing an immediate action item?
• What is the primary task of the Pilot Flying ( PF )?
• Which item is included as a takeoff briefing item?
• What action will the PF take when a 'go-around' is called?
• Are crewmembers required to submit to interrogation by FAA or NTSB investigators without adequate company representation?
• Why must the PF keep their hand on the lever whenever speed brakes are deployed?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed use of the crash axe?
• Which document certifies medical fitness for aircrew and must be checked before a jumpseat occupant is allowed to access the flight deck?
• Who must be advised any time cold temperature corrections are applied to altitude?
• Following an NTSB reportable event, the Captain should contact which entity to convey a clear picture of the circumstances and recommend the best course of action?
• Where are the two QRHs stored on the flight deck?
• The CAMI cycle is intended to support what overall objective in cockpit coordination?
• Are pilots permitted to hand-fly any climb, cruise, or descent while in RVSM airspace?
• What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed below class B, or in class C and D airspace, when the aircraft is within 4 miles of the airport and below 2,500 feet?
• For stabilized approach criteria at 1,000 feet above the TDZE, which condition is the memory item?
• What type of documentation is required to ferry an unairworthy aircraft to a maintenance facility?
• Who must authorize continuing or origin flight after an accident involving NTSB notification?
• For stabilized approach criteria at 500 feet above TDZE, which is the memory item?
• Are ground crew members permitted to load and unload bags while the #2 engine is running?
• Which requirement of the published Ops Specs is compliance mandatory?
• HOLD fuel is included as a required component of Fuel. Which fuel category represents this HOLD component?
• Should the flight crew delay boarding and pre-flight checklists when an EDCT has been issued?
• Are service animals allowed in the aircraft cabin?
• In the event of a TCAS RA conflicting with ATC instructions, which action should be followed?
• When is a second alternate airport required to be listed on the dispatch release?
• What is a Deferred Maintenance Item (DMI)?
• What is the purpose of a maintenance ferry flight?
• During a monitored approach, who flies the approach and who lands the aircraft?
• The MEL allows operation with certain equipment inoperative. True or false?
• Thunderstorm cell tops must be avoided by at least how many feet for every 10 knots of wind speed at the cloud top?
• Passengers boarding/deplaning require how many Flight Attendants on board?
• After an unsuccessful ground reset, which action should the flight crew take?
• What is the purpose of the Flight Log Deferred Index?
• What form must be filed if engine RSV thrust must be applied?
• What is the function of types I / III deice fluid?
• Which conditions require an emergency declaration?
• Which option is NOT among the required aircraft documents?
• What is the name of the service providing 24/7 access to medical advice via phone or radio?
• If a flight is enroute to a destination where weather minimums become less than the minimum, what action can be taken?
• What is Threat and Error Management?
• What condition requires the A flight attendant to be briefed for an evacuation?
• What is the main function of the QRH?
• During cold weather operations, before engine start, what must be confirmed about the N1 fan?
• Must the flight deck door remain closed when halon is being discharged in the passenger cabin?
• Who manages the aircraft galley carts?
• How are duties divided in the event of a fire on the flight deck?
• Which RVR report is controlling for all approaches on that runway?
• In icing conditions, slats and flaps should be extended only when required for takeoff, approach and landing.
• Where is the QRC stored?
• Which statement best describes the three conditions for taking off from an unlisted airport?
• What should the First Officer do when making an 'on the ground' report to station operations with an inoperative ACARS?
• Which status indicates there are no open discrepancies when reviewing AFML entries?
• During a monitored approach, who lands the aircraft?
• Following the policies and procedures of the FOM ensure compliance with the CFR?
• Is equipment not listed in the approved MEL permitted to be deferred through the company's MEL process?
• May a Captain depart knowing any crewmember will exceed any rest requirement or flight time limitation?
• In certified accelerate-stop distance calculations, which component is excluded?
• Takeoff alternate designation is required when the departure airport's reported visibility or RVR is below the landing minimums.
• Is it permissible for pilots to leave the flight deck to fight a fire in the cabin, lavatory, or galley?
• Which is the approved method to correct an AFML entry error?
• Can any company line pilot be assigned to accomplish an OCF?
• What is the purpose of the AFML?
• Which statement best describes when to plug the EFB into power or backup battery according to standard procedure?
• LAHSO prerequisites include ALD vs minimum distance required. Which option correctly reflects this?
• Which location is prohibited for high power engine run ups?
• Can an aircraft operate in international airspace with an exemption for missing documents?
• Which document provides the mandatory operational compliance alignment?
• What does the Flight Attendant's statement Cabin secure for takeoff indicate to the Flight Crew?
• What is the maximum international on-tarmac time?
• Who is responsible for MEL compliance during operation?
• What are examples of procedural errors?
• Which statement describes the purpose of the Minimum fuel category?
• Which option lists the two events that require an INFO ONLY entry in the AFML corrective action block?
• Which department manages the aircraft galley carts in code-share operations?
• Which OpSpec contains a current list of airports authorized for scheduled operations and airports that may be utilized as alternate airports?
• What is the objective of the windshear recovery procedure?
• Can Low Time First Officers conduct Cat II approaches?
• Which precipitation types have no holdover time guidelines regardless of fluid type?
• Who may be on board a maintenance ferry flight besides the flight crew?
• For stabilized approach criteria at 500 feet above TDZE, which item is the memory item?
• Can an aircraft depart with inoperative instruments or equipment that has not been deferred?
• What procedure must be followed when a maintenance irregularity occurs after takeoff or in flight?
• Which AMENDED condition relates to a route change: Change of route more than 50 NM?
• Which statement describes when enplaning or deplaning is allowed at refueling airports?
• The boarding door is required to remain___________ until all carry-on baggage has been properly stowed.
• What checklists will flight crewmembers follow when a non-normal (emergency) procedure must be accomplished?
• Which action is part of the standard steps for opening the passenger door?
• Which statement is true about Category II and Category I decision heights?
• Who must be contacted to brief the flight crew on the conduct of a flight with a special flight permit?
• Following an accident / incident, what must be done with the aircraft?
• Which combination of Jeppesen chart references is used to identify a cold temperature restricted airport?
• Can a dispatcher declare an emergency with ATC for the captain?
• Which action initiates Sterile Cockpit on the ground?
• Who must be notified if RVSM capability is lost enroute?
• During planning to evacuate the cabin after landing, at what altitude will the Captain make the PA announcement 'Brace, Brace'?
• When windshear activity is known or suspected, what takeoff thrust setting must be applied?
• If the Flight Attendant announces Cabin secure for takeoff, what is now true?
• Which condition triggers anti-ice fluid application?
• The Company does not conduct enroute operations outside of what type of airspace?
• Pilots must carry a valid passport, even on domestic flights and while attending any training event.
• Can the first officer make entries into the maintenance logbook?
• Which acronym is used to communicate emergencies with flight attendants?
• Which dispatch release fuel category is used for known or foreseeable delays?
• What is the definition of the touchdown zone?
• During preflight, if the wing's upper surface cannot be assessed from the ground, where else should the wing be viewed?
• Which dispatch release fuel category indicates fuel required to be on board at brake release for the takeoff roll?
• What three personal documents must be maintained in Workday?
• Discrepancies on each AFML page start numbering from what?
• Alcohol will not be consumed within how many hours following an aircraft accident?
• What system is used to verify a crewmember in order to occupy the flight deck jumpseat?
• What option is available if an EFB fails on the ground?
• During refueling with passengers on board, which aircraft door must be open with stairs or a jetbridge positioned in the doorway?
• During extreme cold weather, the company may request the station to drain the potable water on aircraft at the _________.
• Which MEL category expires after 10 consecutive days?
• Does a deadhead after the completion of a flight duty period count toward the Table B limits?
• Company aircraft will not cross any runway unless ___________ is given by ATC.
• More than what percentage of the runway length must be covered by standing water or slush for the runway to be considered contaminated?
• How are safety events handled in the ASAP program?
• How do the Captain and Controlling Dispatcher agree that the flight as planned can be accomplished safely?
• Flights will not dispatch or operate through areas of reported or forecast hazardous weather unless it can be avoided by :
• During takeoff or landing when windshear is present or suspected, the pilot monitoring should immediately announce what?
• Excessive tarmac delay is defined by a fixed time of 90 minutes.
• During a flight deck fire, what is the recommended pairing of duties between the flight crew?
• What three items are required to be included in the Captain's taxi briefing?
• Which document should flight crewmembers follow for emergency procedures?
• Who is responsible for and the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft?
• How can an employee communicate an event or situation to the Company that is not appropriate as an ASAP or Incident report?
• No Pilot may take off from an airport not listed in the OpSp unless which three conditions are met?
• What are the four MEL repair time interval categories?
• Which surfaces are defined as 'Critical Surfaces'?
• During extreme cold weather, the potable water on aircraft may be drained at the _________.
• What is the standard acceleration altitude for departure?
• What altimeter setting is used when operating at or above 18,000 MSL or the Transition Level?
• In the interest of safety, the Captain can deny a potential jumpseater access to the flight deck.
• When is the PF required to guard the controls by placing one hand on the yoke, one hand on the thrust levers, and feet on the rudder pedals?
• Which department should a crewmember contact if they are injured or ill to coordinate duties?
• Who is the primary contact to determine weight and balance when ACARS is available?
• What type of check must be performed if the holdover time has been exceeded or when heavy snow is falling?
• What is the primary means of collision avoidance?
• Which time sequence is specified for ACARS times as Out, Off, On, In?
• What application may be used by the Captain to retrieve the weather package in place of the weather package attached to the release?
• During fueling with passengers onboard, which staffing arrangement is specified?
• How is an appropriate RCC determined at an airport where an RCC is not given?
• What is an incident report?
• Maximum on-tarmac time for domestic and Canada flights?
• Ballast fuel is considered unusable primarily to maintain which parameter of the aircraft?
• If an emergency aircraft cannot communicate with ATC on their assigned frequency, what squawk code and frequency should be used by the flight crew?
• When exercising exemption 17347, Conditional phrases at the destination airport can be ______ of the lowest required visibility for the instrument approach to be flown.
• Can an allowance time be extended by a pre-takeoff contamination check?
• CAMI stands for which four actions?
• Which aircraft lights shall be illuminated when crossing an active runway?
• Does a deadhead after the completion of a flight duty period count toward the Table B limits?
• Which person performs the landing in order to send the ACARS landing request response?
• What personnel is permitted to be on board a ferry flight?
• What is the primary task of the Pilot Monitoring (PM)?
• When does a Category A MEL expire?
• Coordination between PIC and Dispatch is required if the FOB exceeds _______ +/- LBS of the RAMP fuel listed on the release.
• Which pilot manipulates the Flight Guidance Panel (FGP) and FMS (MCDU) while the autopilot is engaged?
• What is the lowest TDZ visibility required for an ILS Category II approach?
• Do the Low Time First Officer approach restrictions apply when exercising exemption 17203?
• During climbs and descents, what altitude increment must be called out by both pilots?
• If a tow bar shear pin breaks during pushback, which action should be taken?
• Which item is among the required documents?
• Does the dispatch release BURN category include a pad to account for departure and approach vectoring, one instrument approach, landing, and enough fuel to perform one missed approach climb to pattern altitude?
• Who should clarify a clearance if there is doubt?
• Does anti-icing fluid provide protection once airborne?
• To qualify for special use airport operations , the company requires flight crewmembers to review any ______ charts prior to operating.
• Which statement best describes the handling of media inquiries after an accident?
• How is an EOW approved aircraft identified by the flight crew?
• Which manual contains information to calculate runway slope when required?
• How should Flight Attendants be notified of emergencies with a planned normal landing?
• What is the primary objective of all actions directed by the Captain after an accident or incident?
• During which phase should ACARS be used only if absolutely necessary?
• Which engine is normally used during single-engine taxi to the parking gate?
• Which statement best describes the Landing callout components?
• What is the chain of command?
• Lithium Batteries Contained in Equipment (Section II) UN numbers used in Covid-19 shipments only are which of the following?
• How many pounds per minute should be used when estimating taxi fuel required?
• Who is responsible to replace a missing galley cart if the normal supply chain cannot be located?
• Which dispatch release fuel category is used by the station when fueling the airplane?
• Who should a crewmember contact if they are injured or ill?
• AQP Distance Learning must be completed by the 20th day of the ______ month of the applicable quarter.
• When a runway or route has been changed after accomplishing a checklist, which items must be accomplished and re-verified?
• If the Flight Attendant announces Cabin secure to taxi, what has been achieved?
• A deadheading crewmember must report to the departure gate how many minutes prior to scheduled departure time?
• In the context of the AQP deadline schedule, the term 'Middle' month refers to which position within the quarter?
• Which pilot accomplishes the Departure Review?
• In an emergency, what assurance should be made to passengers over the public address system?
• What verbiage must be used with ATC when declaring a TDP return to the gate?
• Following the discharge of a halon extinguisher in the flight deck , oxygen masks must be worn at 100 % for at least _______ minutes.
• Who is responsible for storing carry-on baggage prior to taxi?
• No pilot may serve as Captain unless they have completed a line check within the preceding how many calendar months?
• Dry ice shipments must be loaded into which cargo compartment?
• How is an infant defined for weight and balance calculations?
• By what day of the pilots due month must the Medical Certificate Notice be completed?
• Which best defines a distress condition?
• Exemption 17347 allows for dispatch of an aircraft when __ language indicates that the weather may be below minimums.
• What is the lowest DH on an ILS Category II approach?
• Which OpSpec code lists the current airports for scheduled operations and alternates?
• When the PF commands a gear or flap selection, what are the three actions of the PM?
• Who is responsible for ensuring all carry-on baggage is stored prior to closing the boarding door in preparation for taxi or pushback?
• In flight, at what altitude is sterile cockpit terminated?
• What two means can be used to ensure an aircraft is RVSM compliant?
• If tow bar pin breaks during pushback, what action is required?
• An Incident report must be submitted within how many hours of the incident?
• When must a delay report be sent by the PIC?
• Which dispatch release fuel category will be used when ballast fuel is required?
• Exemption 17347 allows domestic flights to be dispatched if forecasts for the destination, first alternate, or both indicate ______ that the weather may be below the authorized weather minimums at the ETA.
• If any flight crewmember is in doubt regarding the clearance or instruction received, what must the crew accomplish?
• Which set of documents must be uploaded in Workday as the crew's three personal documents?
• What is compromised due to altimetry error during extremely cold temperatures?
• In the ACARS system, what is the load manifest called?
• With an inoperative ACARS on the ground, times will not be reported during which situation?
• Maximum dry ice per package for carry-on not hazmat?
• What type of report is required to be filed in the event of a TCAS RA?
• The Director of Operations delegates the authority for operational control to which two parties?
• Where must fueling operations be supervised by the flight crew?
• What is an Anchor City?
• What does PDC stand for in preflight procedures?
• If a new dispatch release number is issued after the crew has signed using ACARS, what must the crew resubmit?
• What does the 'Landing' callout indicate?
• If a flight is unpressurized, which party must the captain notify?
• In dispatch language, which term indicates weather may be below minimums and allows dispatch under a specific exemption?
• Using C055, how are the alternate minimums determined when the alternate has one operational navigation facility?
• Which UN numbers correspond to Lithium Batteries Contained in Equipment used in Covid-19 related shipments?
• CAMI stands for which sequence of actions?
• Which statement best reflects meal planning guidance for Captain and First Officer before a flight?
• Which statement about FOM access is true?
• Who has been delegated the ultimate authority to determine that deicing/anti-icing is necessary for their assigned aircraft?
• Which action establishes the holdover time after deicing/anti-icing?
• The Captain and First Officer will avoid eating identical meals within how many hours of flight?
• Which pilot is always considered the PF while taxiing the airplane?
• Which term describes a follow-up action required to keep MEL valid?
• If Stabilized Approach Criteria are not met, what action is mandatory?
• What altitudes define RVSM airspace?
• Under which navigation class are all flights planned and flown?
• Which equipment is unreliable due to a 5G C-Band NOTAM published at an airport?
• What phase of flight is an aircraft most vulnerable?
• When a flight is to be conducted unpressurized, who must the captain advise?
• What items are required to be carried in a flight kit?
• What is the time/distance limitation from the departure airport to the takeoff alternate?
• What conditions must be met to enable refueling with passengers onboard at an off-gate location?
• ILS CAT II decision altitude alert height is based on which type of altimeter?
• Symptoms of high ozone levels in the cabin can include an acrid _________ and __________.
• A codeshare delay to accommodate late passengers or baggage may be up to how many minutes past scheduled departure?
• Which option lists how ballast fuel included in Hold fuel is communicated to the flight crew?
• How long after windshear/microburst alert will ATIS broadcast the event?
• What is the on board delay time at the gate before passengers must be given the opportunity to deplane?
• What are the four types of alternate airport that may be listed?
• Hot weather operations affect which of the following aspects?
• What is the purpose of the Ground Reset Guide (GRG)?
• What is the rationale for the V1 callout during takeoff?
• When will the Captain exit the aircraft in an evacuation?
• In terminal area operations, which term is used to denote the operator-defined safe altitude?
• How shall crewmembers handle news media following an accident / incident?
• What two actions must be taken by the flight crew after a successful ground reset?
• Where is the completion of the two-day check recorded?
• Is a flight legal to depart when the destination is currently reporting below landing minimums, however is forecast to be above at the time of ETA?
• Who monitors and assists the PF, and manages aircraft systems and radio communications?
• Before departure, which action should occur during an extended delay?
• According to Republic Airways, icing conditions occur at or below which temperature?
• What does the FAA define as 'suitable'?
• Who must be contacted prior to altering an assigned schedule in any way?
• What acronym is used to format a crew briefing?
• When an EDCT is issued, what window of time is available for the flight to depart?
• An RNAV SID or STAR must be retrievable by which item from the FMS database?
• On contaminated runways, the use of reduced thrust settings is which?
• Which statement about per-package weight of dry ice is true?
• What is the minimum flight crew experience required to fly a DOD charter?
• Who determines other circumstances as part of High Minimums beyond the listed items?
• The Captain will not takeoff when frost, ice, or snow is __ to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft.
• Which three conditions require the Engine Reporting Form to be filled out by the captain?
• What action resets the on board delay clock to zero?
• In sterile cockpit environment, who shall conduct the approach briefing?
• The MEL repair time interval categories are A, B, C, and D. True or false?
• Which crewmember should call for a memory item?
• To accommodate late passengers or baggage, a flight may be delayed by the codeshare partner up to __________ minutes past scheduled departure time.
• What is the earliest time a request for PDC can be made?
• In cold temperature correction procedures, ATC notification is not required if corrections are applied on which segment?
• If an item is deferred, which document must be complied with?
• Which phases are considered Critical?
• If there is no response from the flight deck during an incident, who should initiate evacuation?
• How is a child defined for weight and balance calculations?
• What are the standard takeoff minimums for aircraft with two engines or less?
• When windshear activity is known or suspected, the approach airspeed may be increased by a maximum of how many KIAS?
• Which statement about frost on the aircraft is true for takeoff readiness?
• Who must be contacted by a flight crew member in order to defer a maintenance item?
• What factor must be forecast to be within operational limits to be considered a suitable runway?
• What gesture and verbalization is required by both pilots when setting an altitude?
• Which of the following are approved sources to obtain weather information?
• What weather ceiling / visibility requires the use of the autopilot between FAF to the 'Landing' callout?
• What action will the PF take after a go-around is called?
• Which app is used for accessing required flight crewmember and aircraft manuals?
• Encounters with which turbulence intensities require a maintenance write-up?
• In addition to the Jeppesen approach plate, which two additional Jeppesen charts must be referenced to accomplish the required briefing items?
• Maximum on-tarmac time for international flights?
• After receiving a current local altimeter setting, what must both pilots do?
• Where must anti -ice fluid be applied?
• Which pilot is responsible for sending the ACARS pilot landing request response?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of non-routine flight operation?
• When are flight crewmembers required to sync Comply365?
• What system is used to retrieve a Pre-Departure Clearance (PDC)?
• What table must be referenced to determine Type IV holdover time when Light and Moderate Ice Pellets and Small Hail is present?
• Prior to departure , what must be done to an aircraft that was treated with Anti - icing fluid to protect from frozen precipitation overnight ?
• Which item is included as part of the takeoff briefing items list?
• Which of the following is an example of an unexpected threat?
• Which example best represents a Critical Surface for deicing procedures?
• How soon are pilots released from duty after completing the last scheduled/rescheduled leg of a trip pairing?
• Who has the final authority over determining the fuel load?
• Which time classification is defined as fewer than 100 hours in the aircraft type (including OE)?
• Are RNP AR approaches authorized at international locations?
• Who is authorized to use the EMK?
• The descent cabin call is associated with which flight phase?
• The Top of Descent Announcement is accomplished approximately how many minutes prior to arrival?
• When should the Fasten Seatbelt sign be turned ON?
• What is the flight crew responsibilities when attempting to clear a fault?
• For long flights, what instrument does the PIC use to compare flight time against fuel burn?
• FAA has designated certain airports as Special Airports due to
• Which statement about the function of deicing fluid types I and III is correct?
• When is a takeoff alternate required to be designated?
• When using the FMS and a NAVAID or LOC based course provides lateral guidance for a final approach segment, what information must be monitored?
• Which of the following correctly pairs DH and TDZ visibility for ILS Category II?
• Which statement best reflects the RNAV approach constraint for dispatch?
• What is the lowest DH on an ILS Category I approach?
• In METAR/TAF reporting, Remarks contains what type of information?
• If the captain is incapacitated, which crew member assumes command according to standard procedures?
• What manual contains information on how to send a delay report via ACARS?
• A flight may be dispatched to a ______ airport if fuel requirements prohibit a direct flight to the destination.
• Which individuals are involved in the post-rejected takeoff notification process?
• Which action confirms that the flight plan has been reviewed for safety and authorization?
• When an open discrepancy is discovered, who must the PIC immediately notify?
• When must the EFB be plugged in to the flight deck power outlet or backup battery?
• Is a logbook entry required for a missing galley cart?
• What is a holdover time?
• Who provides the flight release for all supplemental flights?
• Which flow chart must be followed to ensure safe takeoff in heavy snow conditions?
• When exercising exemption 17347, the METAR and TAF for the second alternate must indicate in the _________ and _________ that the weather will be at or above the ceiling and visibility for the OpSpec C055 alternate weather minimums.
• Pilots shall not participate in scuba diving within how many hours prior to going on duty?
• Which set of items is reviewed by the PIC when accepting an aircraft?
• Who is responsible for signing the load manifest before each flight?
• RNAV visual flight procedures (RVFP) are authorized for use only upon request by which party?
• When is the Snowfall Intensities Table mandatory?
• In an emergency situation is ATC clearance required prior to taking action?
• Who must have an FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit in their possession?
• Is it acceptable to run the APU at the gate in excess of the company goal time if the passenger cabin temperature cannot be adequately maintained by ground air equipment?
• What marks the end of a Flight Duty Period?
• After an unsuccessful ground reset, which action should the flight crew take?
• LAHSO prerequisites include Below max landing weight. Which option correctly reflects this?
• Which option best describes the role of MST in flight operations?
• How are cabin irregularities reported to the Captain?
• What does the Flight Attendant's statement Cabin secure to taxi indicate to the Flight Crew?
• What level of automation is recommended when flying complex SIDS/STARS?
• If a TCAS RA and conflicting ATC instructions are issued, the _________ must be followed.
• Shall live animals be loaded in the same cargo compartment as dry ice?
• Chart data must be current when operating as a flight crewmember. Which option best reflects this requirement?
• Prior to departure adequate food and potable water should be provided no later than how many hours after closing the main cabin door?
• Which statement is least accurate regarding NEF items?
• In codeshare operations, which of the following statements accurately describes the priority when selecting an alternate if both online and offline options exist?
• How many ground crewmembers must be present when arriving at a gate that does not have an automatic parking guidance system installed?
• During an immediate action item, which sequence describes the PF and PM actions?
• How many times can a circuit breaker be reset?
• What is the PM's action during a memory item?
• Currently approved software versions of the EFB can be found where?
• In the event of an unauthorized laser illumination event, who must the flight crew immediately notify?
• Which statement best describes CDL items?
• Which item is NOT among the required briefing items in the Takeoff Briefing?
• Which two parties can delay a flight that cannot operate safely as planned?
• In an emergency with possible evacuation, which cockpit control should be used to notify the flight attendants?
• Which ACARS message type conveys Pre-Departure Clearance?
• Where is the PIC required to record and compare the flight time and fuel burn on flights that are in excess of two hours?
• Which system is affected by a 5G NOTAM published at an airport?
• Who must all company aircraft be in continuous radio communications with along the entire route of flight?
• Does refusal to fully complete the drug screening process constitute grounds for termination?
• Brake overheating from excessive brake usage may cause the melting of the ______________.
• Is a logbook entry required if an Atlas Container is missing?
• Which statement is correct regarding post-accident interrogation by FAA or NTSB investigators?
• Should cold temperature compensation be applied to ATC assigned altitudes?
• An emergency caregiver may use the EMK under the direction of which physician?
• What are four uses of the crash axe?
• Which statement best describes SWAP's purpose?
• When pilots are paired, either the Captain or the First Officer must have at least ______ hours (including OE) in the aircraft type.
• How many discrepancies can be entered in a single log page block?
• If a circuit breaker trips, what AFML action must be performed?
• If an item is deferred , what document must be complied with?
• How are discrepancies numbered on each AFML page?
• A crewmember's 10-hour minimum rest period must provide a minimum of ______ hours uninterrupted sleep opportunity.
• How many minutes of fuel remaining requires an "Emergency Fuel" declaration?
• Which NOTAMs are not applicable if a runway is listed in the AMOC?
• When is a pre-takeoff check procedure required?
• SWAP stands for which phrase?
• Which of the following is an example of an expected threat?
• Where would you find the detailed list of OCF items?
• What is the purpose of a flow pattern?
• For ADS-B, what is the three-letter code appended to the flight number entered into the transponder?
• Which item in the release briefing specifies the time allowed for departure?
• Any flight crewmember should be able to handle the what duties of the other crewmember?
• What is a possible consequence If performance penalties are not taken into consideration early in the preflight preparation?
• Which action would trigger a NEW dispatch release due to flight plan changes?
• What is the maximum vertical speed for the last 1000 feet when another aircraft is approaching an adjacent altitude?
• What is the acronym for SOC?
• Alcohol must not be consumed within how many hours prior to the scheduled report time?
• Which action demonstrates a procedural error?
• Prior to calling for the taxi checklist during taxi out, what must be complete before accomplishing the Takeoff Briefing?
• Which dispatch release fuel category is used to account for the FAR required fuel reserves?
• Which statement about incident documentation after electrical interference is correct?
• What is the only approved method for correcting an AFML entry error?
• Under what three conditions is a reduced power takeoff prohibited?
• What is the purpose of an Operational Check Flight (OCF)?
• What is the Minimum Standard Turn (MST) used for?
• Which tool should be used to determine an appropriate RCC at an airport where no RCC is published?
• Time stops for TDP when the airplane takes off.
• Which instrument provides decision height data for ILS CAT I approaches?
• Thunderstorm cell tops must be avoided by at least 3000 feet when the wind speed at the cloud top is 30 knots. Which option reflects this requirement?
• Are flight crewmembers required to monitor and confirm clearances to ensure mutual understanding of all accepted clearances?
• What is a distress condition?
• During passenger deplaning, where should the pilot stand?
• Which action is required before taxi or pushback regarding cabin items?
• Should pilots leave the flight deck to fight a fire in the cabin, lavatory, or galley?
• Is HOLD fuel calculated to arrive at the destination above RESV fuel?
• Boarding will begin a minimum of how many minutes prior to departure?
• What is the maximum speed an aircraft can accelerate, lose an engine and either stop or take off in the remaining distance?
• Who is eligible to perform an OCF?
• In icing conditions, slats and flaps should not be extended except when required for takeoff, approach and landing.
• Which LAHSO-related item is explicitly listed as part of the LAHSO briefing items?
• What are the three scheduled maintenance intervals?
• Which statement correctly describes the distance limits for EOW routes from shore based on latitude?
• What is the RCC code corresponding with a wet grooved runway?
• What action must be taken by the crew whenever an engine fails or is shut down?
• Which four events require an additional maintenance write-up?
• When must a current copy of the FOM be available and accessible to flight deck crewmembers?
• Which AMENDED condition corresponds to a change in final filed altitude greater than 4000 feet?
• What is the RCC code corresponding with a dry runway?
• Which of the following is true about NEF items?
• Can a flight be dispatched or attempt to take off without the domestic fuel requirements on board?
• Which item is not part of the marginal weather criteria?
• Which altitude is allowed as the minimum ALT selector setting during a visual approach?
• What is the radio callsign used by pilots if priority assistance from ATC when transporting urgently needed lifesaving medical materials or vital organs?
• Which three documents are required to be carried onboard the airplane to its destination?
• Which of the following statements about ballast fuel and ATC fuel declarations is true?
• What is the maximum allowable blood alcohol content for a crewmember?
• RVSM airspace is defined between which flight levels?
• If a specific RVR or RVV is issued, is that RVR or RVV controlling for takeoffs / landings and straight-in instrument approaches for that specific runway?
• What is the normal means of communication between the flight crew and the deice crew?
• Which manual contains all engine climb gradient tables?
• If ACARS is deferred, who will the flight crew contact to determine the W & B?
• When is a pilot required to be on board during passenger boarding?
• Which two documents are retained by the station?
• An ASAP report should be submitted within how many hours of discovery?
• What chart is required to be in view by both pilots?
• Which dispatch release fuel category is used to account for the fuel that is planned to be burned from takeoff to touchdown?
• When climbing or descending, how many feet above or below the assigned altitude shall both pilots verbally state an altitude callout?
• What does OEI stand for in the context of time/distance limitations?
• If LAHSO is in effect, what is the impact on High Minimums takeoffs/landings?
• Is carrying a valid passport required for pilots on domestic flights and while attending any training event?
• Who is responsible for the completion and accuracy of passenger headcount and auto closeout?
• How many personnel must be on the flight deck when taxiing an aircraft?
• Which speed/altitude parameter is used to calculate the required 45 minutes holding fuel?
• Which release fuel category accounts for fuel planned to be burned from takeoff to touchdown?
• ILS CAT I decision altitude alert height is based on which type of altimeter?
• The Dispatcher signs the dispatch release when it has been ______.
• How long must after an accident a crewmember wait to consume alcohol?
• Which sequence correctly describes the process when an EICAS fault is detected?
• The dispatch release is considered signed by the Dispatcher when it has been ______.
• The Top of Descent Announcement is intended to notify passengers of which event?
• What is the primary purpose of the Safety Hotline confidentiality policy?
• Why is ballast fuel considered unusable?
• Are crewmembers permitted to use their personal electronic devices during aircraft operation?
• Which fuel quantity remaining indicates Minimum Fuel is to be declared?
• The flight path of the aircraft is the primary responsibility of which crewmember?
• If ice accumulation on flaps is suspected after landing, do not retract beyond position 3.
• When may the flight crew pull or reset a circuit breaker while on the ground?
• During fueling operations, who is responsible to assist if fueling personnel lack aircraft-specific training?
• Which conditions are considered marginal for destination and alternate weather?
• How is a Do-Verif checklist procedure accomplished?
• In addition to company personnel, who can be carried on repositioning flights when flight attendants are on duty?
• Fueling beyond the amount necessary to meet FAA and Company dispatch requirements is not authorized without the concurrence of whom?
• How often must a VOR check be logged under Republic Airways policy?
• What is the primary function of the Jeppesen FliteDeck Pro app?
• After how many days without receiving a permanent airman certificate should a pilot notify the Manager of Pilot Training?
• Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, a flight crewmember must be given at least __________ consecutive hours free from all duty in any 168 consecutive hour period.
• Which part of the aircraft must deicing fluid be applied to?
• In MEL provisions, what does the (O) symbol indicate?
• Which aircraft component is not considered in certified RTO stopping distance calculations?
• Who must be informed when a clerical error is made or discovered?
• To ensure the highest safety margin, what should both crewmembers do through all phases of flight?
• What ink color is permitted for AFML entries?
• In the release briefing items, which addresses weather information?
• Which release fuel category represents FAR required fuel reserves?
• What is the primary method of communication between SOC and the flight crew?
• During pushback procedures, what are the three items the Captain must review in taxi briefing?
• Exemption 17203: what is its effect on Low Time First Officer Cat II restrictions?
• Which freezing precipitation conditions is takeoff or landing prohibited?
• Which statement correctly describes when flight attendants will initiate evacuation?
• Which OpSpec permits takeoff when the weather minimums are lower than the standard takeoff minimum?
• With respect to the codeshare being served, alternates shall be selected in what order?
• Who determines when the engines may be started during pushback?
• Which dispatch release fuel category is used to account for the fuel that is planned to be burned to the most distant alternate airport?
• What frequency should be monitored for emergency communication if ATC cannot be reached on the assigned frequency?
• What is the difference between the FOD listed on the computer flight plan and the FOD on the aircraft displays?
• What AeroData runway condition should be selected when the runway surface is shiny due to a thin layer of water less than 1/8 inch covering 100% of the surface?
• For stabilized approach criteria at 1,000 feet AGL, which criterion is the memory item?
• When conducting an approach, a High Minimums Captain must add which two items to the approach minimums?
• Who can you call if you cannot submit an ASAP report within 24 hours?
• Reports to the Safety Hotline Program are confidential and will not be used by Republic Airways for disciplinary action, except in the case of which acts?
• Donating blood within 72 hours of a flight is prohibited.
• The captain will conduct the takeoff when the visibility is less than ________ RVR or __________SM.
• Increased touchdown speeds increase what distance?